Biology High School
Answers
answer 1
Respondent:
Third Place
Explanation:
The degenerate nature of the genetic code refers to the fact that an amino acid can be encoded by more than one combination of triplet nucleotides. However, if an amino acid is encoded by more than one triplet, the multiple triplets of that amino acid differ from each other in the type of nucleotide present at the third position. For example, isoleucine is encoded by AUU, AUC and AUA. The third nucleotide is different in these genetic codes.
Related questions
The brain and nervous system essentially function as an information processing system, powered by electrical impulses and chemical messengers. When an impulse travels through a neuron, it does so electrically. When that impulse reaches the end of the line, it communicates with the next neuron using _____.
Answers
It communicates with the next neuron using chemicals
Arteries supplying the same area often merge together, forming arterial anastomoses. Arteries supplying the same area often merge together, forming arterial anastomoses. T
Answers
Respondent:
The statement is true.
Explanation:
Arteries are vessels that carry blood from the heart to the tissues. Arteries branch and, progressively, with each branch, their size decreases and arterioles are formed. Most organs receive their blood supply from more than one arterial branch, and these branches that supply the same area often converge to form an arterial anastomosis, that is, an arterial anastomosis is the union of two arterial branches that supply the same area. These are alternative pathways for blood to reach a tissue or organ.
Which type of pressure ulcer has intact skin and may include changes in skin temperature (warm or cold), tissue consistency (firm or soft), and/or pain?
Answers
Respondent:
Stage I pressure ulcers have intact skin and may include changes in skin temperature (hot or cold), tissue consistency (firm or soft), and/or pain.
Explanation:
There are four stages of pressure sores:
1) Practice I
2) Stage II
3) Stage III
4) Stage IV
During a stage I pressure ulcer, the following occurs:
1) The skin is intact with non-black and white redness of an area over a bone.
2) Dark colored skin may not have visible whitening
3) Its color may differ from the surrounding area.
Therefore, in the given scenario, the skin is intact and changes in skin temperature also occur, so it is a stage I pressure ulcer.
Cholesterol is synthesized in __________ and is the raw material for the production of ____________. Select the correct answer from the options below and then select the submit answer button. pancreas; testosterone liver; Pancreatic DNA? cellulose liver; pancreatic testosterone; Vitamin A
Answers
Respondent:
liver, testosterone
Explanation:
Cholesterol is an important type of organic molecule that has many important roles in organisms. It is a sterol also called a modified steroid. It plays an important role in the cell membrane of the body. It is usually synthesized in the liver and some other parts of the body. Cholesterol synthesis is regulated by a homeostatic mechanism. Testosterone is synthesized from cholesterol, so cholesterol acts as a raw material. Testosterone plays an important role in the development of male reproductive tissues.
The doctor. Haxton told one of his students: "To move through the bloodstream, fats need the help of phospholipids." What would a good student say? The doctor. Haxton told one of his students: "To move through the bloodstream, fats need the help of phospholipids." What would a good student say?
Answers
Respondent:
In this case, the good student will say yes.
Explanation:
Molecules containing hydrophilic phosphate heads and hydrophobic lipid tails are known as phospholipids. These forms of lipids are found in cell membranes and play an important role in protecting and coating the internal components of the cell.
A good student's answer will be yes to the question asked by Dr. Haxton, as fats and water are incompatible with each other. Non-polar molecules, such as fats, are immiscible with water and therefore tend to travel within particles coated with proteins and phospholipids, which are polar in nature.
Respondent:
TRUE
Explanation:
The composition of fats is of fatty acids and triglycerides which are hydrophobic in nature. Its hydrophobic nature makes it difficult to transport through the bloodstream.
Therefore, the body forms monolayer structures of phospholipids and apolipoproteins known as lipoproteins. The hydrophilic part is on the outside, while the hydrophobic part is on the inside that surrounds the fats.
So true is the correct answer.
A genetic mutation that causes a codon that should code for a specific amino acid to become a stop codon results in a shortened protein product and is known as
Answers
Meaningless mutation
Explanation:
- Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence of a cell. When a mutation occurs in the coding sequence of a gene, the resulting protein is altered
- A nonsense mutation is a point mutation that introduces a premature stop codon into the part of the gene that codes for a protein. A stop codon is like a period at the end of a sentence. It instructs the ribosome to stop making the protein. Incomplete proteins resulting from nonsense mutations are usually non-functional or defective.
- The DNA sequence of the coding region of a gene is transcribed into a messenger RNA molecule, the sequence of which is in turn read and decoded by the ribosome and transfer RNAs during translation.
- The sequence of a messenger RNA is read in groups of three nucleotides called codons. Each possible combination of the three RNA nucleotides (A, G, C, and U) codes for an amino acid, translation initiation, or translation termination. What you see on the screen is a table showing what each codon means to the ribosome and transfer RNAs.
Hershey and Chase grew some viruses in liquid containing 35S and another batch of viruses in a different vial of liquid containing 32P. Would you expect a virus growing on 35S-containing medium to synthesize 35S-containing DNA?
Answers
Respondent:
No, because DNA has no S (sulfur) atoms in its nucleotide.
Explanation:
The DNA molecule has many nucleotides that are linked by a specific type of covalent bond. DNA nucleotides have a pentose sugar, a phosphate and a nitrogenous base (purines and pyrimidines). None of these components of DNA nucleotides have sulfur atoms in their structure. Therefore, viruses growing on a medium with 35S would not form DNA with these sulfur atoms. Sulfur atoms are present in some of the amino acids of proteins.
A 2-month-old child is suspected of having coronary artery disease. What is the main sign of this defect? A. Digital clubbing of the fingers and peripheral cyanosis. B. Foot edema and portal congestion. C. Systolic ejection murmur. D. Hypertension of the upper extremity.
Answers
Respondent:
one.
Explanation:
When glucose is converted to ethanol by yeast (as in brewing beer), how much of the chemical energy originally stored in the glucose still remains in the final product, ethanol, that is produced?
Answers
Respondent:
92%
Explanation:
When glucose is converted to ethanol by yeast, one mole of glucose is converted to two moles of ethanol and two moles of carbon dioxide,
and this process produces two moles of ATP.
C6H12O6 → 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO2
When glucose is converted to ethanol by yeast (as in brewing beer), 92% of the chemical energy originally stored in the glucose remains in the final product, ethanol, that is produced.
Each of the codons to stop translation is linked to a tRNA molecule that does not carry an amino acid. How would the binding of a stop codon cause the full chain of amino acids to be released?
Answers
Respondent:
The process of translation or protein synthesis stops when the tRNA binds to any of the three codons which are UGA, UAG or UAA.
These do not code for any amino acids, so they send the signal at the end of the protein. The stop codon at the A site causes the peptidyltransferase to add the water molecule in the presence of release agents.
This releases the carboxyl terminus of the protein that holds the protein bound to the ribosome, so the protein being synthesized at that time is released into the cytoplasm.
Which of the following is an example of alteration? O. The slimy snake slithered slowly to the b side. The snake was very slow and fat c. The frog jumped forward and landed upside down d. The big bear had soft fur that was long and shaggy.
Answers
Respondent:
ONE.
Explanation:
A protein that contains more isoleucine, phenylalanine, and leucine than asparagine, lysine, and arginine is likely to be ________. A protein that contains more isoleucine, phenylalanine, and leucine than asparagine, lysine, and arginine is likely to be ________. Neutral hydrophobic Low on the hydropathy index scale Hydrophilic
Answers
Respondent:
The correct answer is: Hydrophobic, Hydrophobic.
Explanation:
- Proteins consist of polypeptide chains formed by the polymerization of amino acid molecules, joined by peptide bonds.
- Amino acids can be broadly classified into non-polar and polar.
- Non-polar amino acids can be defined as those whose side chains have only hydrocarbon molecules. They carry no charge and are unable to form hydrogen bonds with water molecules. They tend to avoid water and therefore tend to remain buried within a protein. Examples can be illustrated as Leucine, Valine, Isoleucine, Phenylalanine, etc.
- Polar amino acids can be defined as those amino acids whose side chains have a charge (positive or negative) or a hydroxyl group that is capable of forming hydrogen bonds with water molecules. As they tend to form hydrogen bonds with water molecules, they are usually found on the surface of proteins. Examples can be explained as Lysine, Arginine, Serine, Asparagine etc.
Walt continuously attends continuing education courses related to his profession so that he can upgrade himself as a professional. What aspect of spiritual development does Walt's philosophy best reflect?
Answers
The question is incomplete as it does not have the option which is:
O. You see yourself as a unique brand.
SI. Learn about as wide a range of topics as possible.
w. Take advantage of multiple learning paths.
Hey. Seeing career as a means to a healthy spirituality.
Respondent:
A-Choice
Explanation:
Intellectual development refers to the developmental changes that lead to changes in a person's ability to learn.
The change in learning ability is observed in the way the person organized his thoughts into minds, thinking ability, judgment, perception and many other conceptualizations.
In the question asked, as the person is constantly attending the courses that can improve him as a professional, therefore, his spiritual development is considered to be developed to the level at which he himself is unique and a unique mark as a professional master.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
What causes the greatest change in chest volume during silent inspiration? What causes the greatest change in chest volume during silent inspiration? Relaxation of the internal intercostal muscles Contraction of the diaphragm Increased intrapleural pressure Airflow into the lungs
Answers
Respondent:
Diaphragm contraction causes the largest change in thoracic volume during silent inhalation.
Explanation:
Silent breathing is an active process that involves:
1) Contraction (descension) of the diaphragm: results in an increase in vertical diameter causing the greatest change in thoracic volume.
2) Elevation of the ribs (External Midrib): It results in an increase in the anteroposterior and lateral diameter
Microbes have very narrow ranges of optimal temperatures. Which of the following classifications of microbes is most likely to cause human disease, based on temperature requirements? View available tips Microbes have very narrow optimum temperature ranges. Which of the following classifications of microbes is most likely to cause human disease, based on temperature requirements? thermophilic hyperthermophilic mesophilic psychrophilic
Answers
Respondent:
mesophiles
Explanation:
Meophilic or mesophilic microbes are those microscopic organisms that thrive best at a moderate temperature between 20 and 45 degrees Celsius.
This temperature range coincides with the temperature range in which people live, perform their daily physical and biological activities.
Therefore, mesophiles represent the group of microbes most likely to cause human disease.
The way human language develops as a result of genes and the opportunity to hear language during a sensitive period in early life is an example of an explanation of a(n)_________.
Answers
Respondent:
ontogenetic explanation
Explanation:
Ontogenetic explanation? The development of structure or the development of behavior is described by the ontogenetic explanation.
It also describes the influences of genes, experiences, diet and their interactions.
Example of an ontogenetic explanation. : here, human language develops as a result of genes and the opportunity to hear language during a sensitive period in early life.
"Explain the statement that both Archaea and Bacteria have the same basic structures, but these structures are made of different chemical components"
Answers
Importance of Archaea and Bacteria
Explanation:
- Microorganisms contain peptidoglycan in the cell divider.
- Anciently no. Explain the explanation that the two types, microbes and archaea, have similar basic structures but are made of different synthetic parts.
- Archaea and both microbes have cell membranes and both contain a hydrophobic patch.
- Both microorganisms and archaea have a cell divider that secures them. it is made of peptidoglycan, although because of the ancients.
- Both microscopic organisms and archaea have different ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs).
- Archea have three RNA polymerases like eukaryotes, but microorganisms have only one. Archaea have cell divisions that require peptidoglycan and have membranes that surround hydrocarbon lipids as opposed to unsaturated fats.
- Both microscopic organisms and archaea have different ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs).
A ________ training program is designed to help a person gain strength, neuromuscular control, strength, and muscular endurance of the muscles in the lower back, abdomen, and around the hips and pelvis.
Answers
Core stability training.
Explanation:
- Core Stability Training is gaining traction in recovery as clinicians increasingly realize the impact of a deficiency in the body's "core" on lower limit mechanics and execution.
- The lumbar, pelvic, and hip areas together are considered the center of the body and are called the lumbopelvic-hip complex (LPHC). Optimal core capability includes portability and core strength.
- At the point where the center is operating efficiently, favorable length-strain connections are maintained that allow the competitor to deliver stable developments at the ends.
- Core stability can also be important in allowing a competitor to maintain the focal point of weight over the base of support.
Amniotic fluid serves to: Select one: a. help the development of the fetus. SI. remove the virus from the fetus. w. isolate and protect the fetus. Hey. oxygen transport to the fetus.
Answers
Answer: C. isolate and protect the fetus
Explanation: Amniotic fluid is the fluid that surrounds and protects a fetus as it grows in the womb. It serves as a cushion for the developing fetus, but also serves to facilitate the exchange of nutrients, water, and biochemicals between mother and fetus. It also protects the developing baby by absorbing shocks to the mother's abdomen, facilitating fetal movement and promoting muscle/skeletal development.
Respondent:
The correct answer is c. isolate and protect the fetus.
Explanation:
Amniotic fluid is a clear or yellowish fluid that surrounds and protects the fetus as it grows during pregnancy. This fluid is 97% water and contains salts, minerals and other substances that help the embryo mature, as well as providing a constant temperature. The functions of amniotic fluid vary, but its main function is to act as a protective barrier (protecting the fetus from external shocks) and to provide the fetus with water and minerals. On the other hand, being a sterile medium, it isolates the fetus from possible maternal infections.
Which valve(s) would the increased pressure in the ventricles close? Which valve(s) would the increased pressure in the ventricles close? AV valves only semilunar valves only semilunar valves and AV valves
Answers
Answer: Only atrioventricular (AV) valves
Explanation:
During the initial phase of ventricular systole, when the pressure in the ventricles increases, the atrioventricular (mitral/tricuspid) valves close. When the pressure in the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the aorta/pulmonary trunk, the aortic/pulmonary valves open and blood is pumped from the heart into the great arteries.
Other questions
Quinn recently launched a look network campaign for her women's clothing store. Since its launch, traffic to its website has increased, but sales have remained flat. Which story shows Quinn using remarketing to promote action? The food calorie, equal to 4186 J, is a measure of the amount of energy released when the body metabolizes food. A particular energy bar contains 140 calories of food. a) If a 65-kg mountain climber eats a barbell, how high must he climb to "break through" the calories, assuming all the energy of eating goes into increasing gravitational potential energy? b) If, as is more common, only 20% of the calories in food go to mechanical energy, what would your answer be to part (a)? The brain and nervous system essentially function as an information processing system, powered by electrical impulses and chemical messengers. When an impulse travels through a neuron, it does so electrically. When that impulse reaches the end of the line, it communicates with the next neuron using _____. An aqueous solution of dextrose with a density of 1.04 g/cm3 freezes at –1.15°C. Find the osmotic pressure of this solution at 25°C. Kf of water is 1.86 °C/m. molecular mass of dextrose = 180.16 g/mol. Ten-year-old Marie is sad. Cries. Her older brother Pavlos looks at her and continues to watch TV. Paul may be showing signs of _____. What must change for the following sentence to be true? According to the Schachter-Singer law, simple tasks perform best when arousal levels are relatively high, and complex tasks perform best when arousal is low. Katia works an extra hour a day for nine weekdays in exchange for a three-day shift every other week. What plan does Katya's employer provide, based on this example? What is a management system, other than a measurement system, that enables organizations to clarify their vision and strategy and translate them into action? Regarding the process of communication, what term refers to the conversion of a sender's ideas and thoughts into a message, usually in the form of words or signs? In the early decades of the 20th century, Theodore Roosevelt coined the term ______ to describe writers who instigated change by targeting powerful political and industrial people and institutions. Arteries supplying the same area often merge together, forming arterial anastomoses. Arteries supplying the same area often merge together, forming arterial anastomoses. T The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 was primarily driven by ______ of the 1990s? The US National Institute of Standards and Technology. defines the incident response life cycle as having four main processes: 1) preparedness; 2) detection and analysis; 3) containment, eradication and recovery; and 4) ____. Which type of pressure ulcer has intact skin and may include changes in skin temperature (warm or cold), tissue consistency (firm or soft), and/or pain? A series RLC circuit has an applied voltage of 240 volts. R = 48 Ω, XL = 100 Ω, XC = 36 Ω, and Z = 80 Ω. What is the voltage drop across the capacitor? Is Nike's logo an example of ________ tools for creating a brand position that differentiates it from its competitors? A consumer has two basic options for taking a trip: rent a car for $30 a day and spend two days traveling to the destination, or spend $400 on a plane ticket and fly to the destination in two hours. The marginal uses of car rental and airline tickets are the same. The consumer values time at $5 per hour. The rational consumer probably The depolarizing phase of an action potential requires _____. The depolarizing phase of an action potential requires _____. K channels open in the membrane Ca2 concentration gradient across the membrane K concentration gradient across the membrane Ca2 channels open in the membrane Na channels open in the membrane Cholesterol is synthesized in __________ and is the raw material for the production of ____________. Select the correct answer from the options below and then select the submit answer button. pancreas; testosterone liver; Pancreatic DNA? cellulose liver; pancreatic testosterone; Vitamin A The doctor. Haxton told one of his students: "To move through the bloodstream, fats need the help of phospholipids." What would a good student say? The doctor. Haxton told one of his students: "To move through the bloodstream, fats need the help of phospholipids." What would a good student say?
FAQs
Which position in a codon shows the most degeneracy? In other words, if a change occurs in this codon? ›
The degeneracy is found primarily the third position. Consequently, single nucleotide substitutions at the third position may not lead to a change in the amino acid encoded. These are called silent or synonymous nucleotide substitutions.
Which codon position usually shows degeneracy? ›The genetic code is degenerate mainly at the third codon position.
What is 3rd base degeneracy? ›Degeneracy is a property of genetic codons in which the third position of codons differ and codes for the same amino acid. So, the phenomenon where the third base of t-RNA at its 5'end can pair with a complementary base of mRNA is called Degeneracy.
In what codon position are the majority of substitutions? ›Five synonymous substitutions are possible in the first codon position, whereas the most degenerated position is the third one.
At which position in an anticodon would wobble occur to accommodate degeneracy in a codon? ›The ability of tRNA's first or wobble anticodon base at position-34 becomes all that more important in distinguishing between codons. The number of tRNAs used for the recognition of these codons varies from amino acid to amino acid and from organism to organism [29,84].
Which of the following indicates the degeneracy of the genetic code? ›Hence, the degeneracy of the genetic code is attributed to the third codon. This is also called the Wobble hypothesis.
Which codon does not show degeneracy? ›So the correct option is 'UGG'.
What is an example of degeneracy in codons? ›UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC and CUG are degenerate codons as they all code for the same amino acid Leucine.
What is degeneracy point? ›A point is a degenerate circle, namely one with radius 0. The line is a degenerate case of a parabola if the parabola resides on a tangent plane. In inversive geometry, a line is a degenerate case of a circle, with infinite radius. Two parallel lines also form a degenerate parabola.
Why does a pattern of degeneracy occur at the third codon? ›Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the third member of the codon. Degeneracy of codons is the redundancy of the genetic code. Degeneracy results because there are more codons than encodable amino acids.
Why do 3rd codon positions evolve faster than 1st and 2nd codon positions? ›
The second-codon position shows the most rate heterogeneity (lowest value of α). Third-codon positions have the least rate heterogeneity; such sites tend to evolve at more similar rates to each other than other CPs do.
What is the third position of the codon? ›The wobble position of a codon refers to the 3rd nucleotide in a codon. This nucleotide has two major characteristics: Binding of a codon in an mRNA the cognate tRNA is much "looser" in the third position of the codon. This permits several types of non-Watson–Crick base pairing to occur at the third codon position.
Which position of a codon is least important? ›Thus, it would appear that P2 in codons is most important, P1 is of intermediate importance, and P3 is least important for specifying the amino acids in proteins (7). Correlation of G+C (GC) contents of the total genomic DNA of various organisms with the GC contents of the three codon positions.
What does degeneracy of the codon code mean quizlet? ›The degeneracy of the genetic code means that an amino acid may be coded for by more than one codon. However, a single codon can only ever specify one amino acid.
How does the degeneracy of the genetic code relate to the wobble position? ›The genetic code is degenerate, meaning that multiple codons can encode a single amino acid because of wobble pairing. Wobble pairing describes how tRNA molecules, each carrying an associated amino acid, can bind through their anticodon to multiple different mRNA codons during translation at the ribosome.
What does degeneracy mean ___________________ in codons? ›Codon degeneracy means that the genetic code is degenerate. It means that there is more than one codon that specifies the single amino acid. The phenomenon in which several of the amino acids, each coded by more than one codon is called codon degeneracy.
What causes degeneracy of the genetic code? ›The genetic code relating sequences of polypeptides and polynucleotides is degenerate because there are many more triplet codons than encoded amino acid residues. Consequently, an enormous number of structurally distinct mRNA species could be translated to generate the amino acid sequence of any particular protein.
What causes codon degeneracy? ›Degeneracy results because there are more codons than encodable amino acids. For example, if there were two bases per codon, then only 16 amino acids could be coded for (4²=16).
What are the types of degeneracy in the genetic code? ›The code is degenerate mainly at the third codon position, for instance, GGN, GCN, and GUN, 4 codons each, code for Gly, Ala, and Val, respectively.
What is the wobble effect? ›The Wobble Hypothesis describes how one amino acid can be coded for by several codons. The third nucleotide in a codon is referred to as the wobble position.
What are 2 fold degenerate codons? ›
A codon is said to be four-fold degenerate if any nucleotide at its third position specifies the same amino acid; it is said to be two-fold degenerate if only two of four possible nucleotides at its third position specify the same amino acid.
What is degenerate codon in biology? ›As a descriptive term, degenerate describes the redundancy of the genetic code. A degenerate code refers to any of the codon combinations that lead to the same amino acid. In other words, an amino acid may be specified by more than one type of codon.
How do you identify degeneracy? ›We say that we say that a basis is degenerate if a basic variable is 0. This is far simpler than the alternative definition in which one needs to check if there are two bases corresponding to the same solution..
How do you determine degeneracy? ›A value of energy is said to be degenerate if there exist at least two linearly independent energy states associated with it. Moreover, any linear combination of two or more degenerate eigenstates is also an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian operator corresponding to the same energy eigenvalue.
How do you find degeneracy? ›Complete Step-by-Step Solution:
The energy has been given to be equal to \[\dfrac{{ - {R_H}}}{9}\]. Hence the value of n = 3. Thus the total number of degenerate orbitals present in the third shell are 1 + 3 + 5 = 9 degenerate orbitals. Hence the degeneracy of the given hydrogen atom is 9.
Due to the redundancy of the genetic code (multiple codons code for the same amino acid), these changes usually occur in the third position of a codon.
Why is the triplet code degenerate quizlet? ›The genetic code is said to be degenerate because more than one codon can code for the same amino acid. This allows for mistakes that can take place in the DNA sequence: the appropriate amino acid can still be placed in the primary protein sequence.
What would happen if an a was substituted at the third position in this codon? ›Silent: If abase substitution occurs in the third position of the codon there is a good chance that a synonymous codon will be generated. Thus the amino acid sequence encoded by the gene is not changed and the mutation is said to be silent.
How do mutations in position one of a codon differ from those in position three? ›Answer and Explanation: The answer to the question is (b): a mutation at the third codon position is more likely to result in a synonymous mutation than mutations at the first and second positions. The third codon position is thus the least functionally constrained.
What are the codon positions? ›Codon contains combinations of 4 bases A,T,C,G at its 3 positions and as a whole codes for a particular amino acid. Since there are 20 different amino acids and 64 possible codons, more than one codon may code for a single amino acid.
What happens if there is a second start codon? ›
Answer and Explanation: The start codon on mRNA translates as the code for the amino acid methionine. Two start codons in a row would simple give two metionine animo acids at the start of the chain. Another one later on in the sequence would add another methionine.
Why is the third base of a codon less important? ›Due to genetic code degeneracy, many amino acids share the third base and differ in first two bases only thereby making the third base less important.
Why is it called the wobble position? ›Crick creatively named it for the small amount of "play" or wobble that occurs at this third codon position. Movement ("wobble") of the base in the 5' anticodon position is necessary for small conformational adjustments that affect the overall pairing geometry of anticodons of tRNA.
What are the 3 bases of the start codon? ›A codon is a group of three bases - A, T, C, or G - and codes for a single amino acid. (The amino acids are strung together to make proteins.) A start codon is made up of the letters ATG, which codes for the amino acid methionine.
Which stop codon is strongest? ›Type of the STOP codon
UAG is less “leaky,” and UAA has the highest fidelity. Although the identity of a particular STOP codon is crucial for the efficiency of basal RT, this process also depends on other factors.
A silent mutation of a DNA sequence is more likely to occur when a change in the DNA sequence inside a protein-coding region of a gene has no effect on the amino acid sequence that makes up the protein. This alteration often occurs at the codon's third position, commonly known as the wobble location.
What is the most common start codon for translation? ›Translation generally initiates with the AUG codon. While initiation at GUG and UUG is permitted in prokaryotes (Archaea and Bacteria), cases of CUG initiation were recently reported in human cells.
Does the degeneracy of the genetic code mean that each codon codes for more than one amino acid? ›With three bases, there are 43 = 64 codons, which is more than enough to encode the 20 amino acids. Therefore, the genetic code is degenerate, which means more than one triplet can encode the same amino acid. Each amino acid can have more than one codon, but no codon can encode more than one amino acid.
What is degeneracy of genetic code and why genetic code is called commaless? ›a) Commaless: Genetic code is commaless. This means that the arrangement of triplet codons on m-RNA is one after other without a gap. b) Non-ambiguous nature: Each codon specifies a particular amino acid. The only exception is AUG which codes for methionine and GUG and codes for valine.
What is third base degeneracy? ›Degeneracy is a property of genetic codons in which the third position of codons differ and codes for the same amino acid. So, the phenomenon where the third base of t-RNA at its 5'end can pair with a complementary base of mRNA is called Degeneracy.
What is degeneracy of codon example? ›
UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC and CUG are degenerate codons as they all code for the same amino acid Leucine.
What does the genetic code is degenerate imply? ›Degenerate genetic coding means that although there are 64 different codons, there are only 21 amino acids, meaning that there are multiple codons which code for one single amino acid.
What is meant by codon degeneracy? ›Codon degeneracy means that the genetic code is degenerate. It means that there is more than one codon that specifies the single amino acid. The phenomenon in which several of the amino acids, each coded by more than one codon is called codon degeneracy.
What is degeneracy of genetic codon due to? ›Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the third member of the codon. Degeneracy of codons is the redundancy of the genetic code. Degeneracy results because there are more codons than encodable amino acids.
In what ways is the genetic code degenerate? ›The genetic code is degenerate because there are many instances in which different codons specify the same amino acid. A genetic code in which some amino acids may each be encoded by more than one codon.
What is meant by the degeneracy of the genetic code quizlet? ›When we say the genetic code is degenerate, it means that more than one codon can specify the same amino acid. For example, GGG, GGC, GGA, and GGU all specify glycine. In general, the genetic code is nearly universal, because it is used in the same way by viruses, prokaryotes, fungi, plants, and animals.
What is a codon redundant and degenerate as related to the genetic code quizlet? ›Define codon, redundant and degenerate as related to the genetic code. Codon - a sequence of three nucleotides that together form a unit of genetic code in a DNA or RNA molecule. Redundant - more than one codon may specify a particular amino acid. Degenerate - code in which several code words have the same meaning.
Why is codon degeneracy important to cells? ›Degeneracy is believed to be a cellular mechanism to reduce the negative impact of random mutations. Codons that specify the same amino acid typically only differ by one nucleotide. In addition, amino acids with chemically similar side chains are encoded by similar codons.